Received wisdom seems to have Return on Equity (RoE) as an accepted measure of how good a company is at delivering profits for shareholders, which seems fair enough.
In essence, it is calculated by dividing Net Income (Profit After Tax) by Net Assets (Equity funds (attributable to ordinary shares)) on the opening balance sheet. So, if you started with Net Assets of 100 and generated Net Income of 15, your RoE is 15% for the year (one of my Rules). (Note: I use the opening balance of Net Assets, but I have seen others who take an average of the opening and closing Net Asset position).
Let's consider a worked example and I make no apologies for trying to keep it as simple as possible:
- a company generates £10m of PAT each year for three years;
- it has opening Net Assets (ordinary shareholders' equity; non-cash) of £50m; and
- the Market values the company on a P/E of 12x PAT.
A Basic analysis looks like this:
| BASIC | Opening | Yr 1 | Yr 2 | Yr 3 | ROE | "Value" | |||||
| PAT (£'m) | 10 | 10 | 10 | 120 | |||||||
| DIVIDENDS (£'m) | 0 | 0 | 0 | ||||||||
| NET ASSETS bal b/f | 50 | 60 | 70 | ||||||||
| NET ASSETS bal c/f | 50 | 60 | 70 | 80 | 30 | ||||||
Ave | |||||||||||
| ROE | 20% | 17% | 14% | 17% | 150 | ||||||
This assumes that each year's profits are retained by the company. The RoE declines each year as the company is not "sweating" its assets hard enough due to the growing surplus cash pile.
From a valuation perspective, the company would be valued at £150m, assuming earnings are valued at £120m (12x PAT) and surplus cash (£30m) is valued at par.
However, let's throw in some dividends. Assuming that all post-tax profits are distributed as dividends each year, the analysis would look something like this:
| DIVIDENDS | Opening | Yr 1 | Yr 2 | Yr 3 | ROE | "Value" | |||||
| PAT (£'m) | 10 | 10 | 10 | 120 | |||||||
| DIVIDENDS (£'m) | 10 | 10 | 10 | 30 | |||||||
| NET ASSETS bal b/f | 50 | 50 | 50 | ||||||||
| NET ASSETS bal c/f | 50 | 50 | 50 | 50 | |||||||
Ave | |||||||||||
| ROE | 20% | 20% | 20% | 20% | 150 | ||||||
The RoE remains steady each year at 20% as surplus cash is not allowed to build up. From a value perspective, the company would be valued at £120m and the shareholders would have received dividends of £30m, resulting in "value" of £150m (ignoring time value of money and personal tax implications). Same "value", better RoE.
Now let's throw some share buy-backs into the mix. Assuming the company spends all of its profits on share buy-backs, the analysis would look something like this.
| BUY-BACKS | Opening | Yr 1 | Yr 2 | Yr 3 | ROE | "Value" | |||||
| PAT (£'m) | 10 | 10 | 10 | 152 | |||||||
| BUY-BACKS (£'m) | 10 | 10 | 10 | ||||||||
| NET ASSETS bal b/f | 50 | 46 | 42 | ||||||||
| NET ASSETS bal c/f | 50 | 46 | 42 | 39 | |||||||
Ave | |||||||||||
| ROE | 20% | 22% | 24% | 22% | 152 | ||||||
The RoE goes up each year as the net assets figure shrinks due to the buy-backs. Interestingly, the value increases slightly (could be my maths) even despite the fact that the company is essentially wasting shareholders' money by buying back expensive shares in the open market - ie £10m of year 1 share purchases only reduces the Net Assets by £4m (assuming it would not otherwise be held as surplus cash). However, for each £1 of share capital bought back, there is a multiplier effect on value as EPS goes up (due to profits being spread over fewer shares).
So, which is best? From a big-picture perspective, the same company is producing the same level of profits from what is essentially the same operating capital base, so there should be little difference. From a RoE perspective and "value creation" perspective, scenario 3 appears to be superior with an average RoE 30% higher than the basic scenario, although if I came across this scenario, I would be put off by the market value being at a high premium to net assets and the lack of a dividend! Maybe screening for a high RoE could hide suitable opportunities?
There is also the small issue of leverage (debt) which helps to improve returns to shareholders through the introduction of lower cost funds (compared to equity). There is probably an optimal balance between debt and equity for each company to maximise the impact on its RoE.
Conclusion
- RoE is an important, but crude measure of how much profit is being generated for shareholders;
- A rising RoE does not mean that a company is generating higher levels of profits per se and vice versa;
- ROE can be distorted by dividends, share buy-backs and leverage - for instance, see GlaxoSmithKline which has an unfeasibly high RoE due to leverage and all net profits being distributed through dividends and share buy-backs;
- There may be opportunities in finding companies with surplus cash on the balance sheet and an accelerated buy-back policy - an increasing RoE might capture the attention of more investors and drive up the price;
- Return on Capital Employed (ROCE) might be a better measure of how much return a company generates through employing debt and equity. (EBIT/(Debt+Equity). I will research some more and see whether that is more appropriate for my Rules; and
- I could be barking up the wrong tree!









